Economic and Game Theory
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But suppose it's a 4x4 game with two strict equilibrium strategies A and B, and two other strategies C and D. C and D are best replies to each other, but they are not equilibria. Is the procedure for calculating risk dominance the same here (i.e. do we just ignore C and D since they're not equilibria, and check the product-of-deviation-losses for A and B)? Or is it different? What about if C and D are strictly dominated by A and B?
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